The debt schedule is where most candidates get lost in LBO models. This is the complete guide to mandatory vs. optional paydown, revolvers, PIK toggle mechanics, and the cash sweep.
In an LBO, the debt schedule does three things: (1) tracks beginning and ending debt balances by tranche, (2) calculates interest expense for the income statement, and (3) models how free cash flow is allocated to debt repayment. Get this wrong and your IRR is wrong.
The debt schedule is also where interviewers separate candidates who've actually built models from those who've only read about them.
Required principal repayments scheduled in the credit agreement. Term Loan B typically requires 1% per year amortization (called the "1% amortization" or "TLB amort"). This is non-discretionary — it happens regardless of FCF.
After mandatory debt payments, all remaining FCF is "swept" to pay down debt — starting with the highest-cost tranches. In the credit agreement, this is called the "excess cash flow sweep" and typically ranges from 25%–100% of excess FCF (reducing as leverage improves).
The order of paydown (the "waterfall"):
The revolving credit facility is a working capital cushion. In the model, it gets drawn if the company runs low on cash (e.g., during a seasonal trough or working capital build). It gets repaid first when cash is available.
Using the same company: $1,750M TLB at 1% amort, $750M Senior Notes at 8.5% fixed, $300M Revolver (undrawn at entry).
| Line Item | Entry | Y1 | Y2 | Y3 | Y4 | Y5 |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Revolver | ||||||
| Beginning Balance | 0 | 0 | 0 | 0 | 0 | 0 |
| Draw / (Repayment) | — | 0 | 0 | 0 | 0 | 0 |
| Ending Balance | 0 | 0 | 0 | 0 | 0 | 0 |
| Interest Rate | — | SOFR+275 | — | — | — | — |
| Cash Interest | — | 0 | 0 | 0 | 0 | 0 |
| Term Loan B (1% Annual Amort) | ||||||
| Beginning Balance | 1,750 | 1,750 | 1,715 | 1,522 | 1,321 | 1,115 |
| Mandatory Amort (1%) | — | (18) | (17) | (15) | (13) | (11) |
| Optional Paydown | — | (17) | (176) | (186) | (193) | (207) |
| Ending Balance | 1,750 | 1,715 | 1,522 | 1,321 | 1,115 | 897 |
| Interest Rate (all-in) | — | 8.75% | 8.75% | 8.75% | 8.75% | 8.75% |
| Cash Interest | — | 153 | 150 | 133 | 116 | 98 |
| Senior Notes (8.5% Fixed) | ||||||
| Beginning Balance | 750 | 750 | 584 | 0 | 0 | 0 |
| Mandatory Amort | — | 0 | 0 | 0 | 0 | 0 |
| Optional Paydown (Excess FCF) | — | (166) | (584) | 0 | 0 | 0 |
| Ending Balance | 750 | 584 | 0 | 0 | 0 | 0 |
| Cash Interest | — | 64 | 50 | 0 | 0 | 0 |
| Totals | ||||||
| Total Debt | 2,500 | 2,299 | 1,522 | 1,321 | 1,115 | 897 |
| Total Cash Interest | — | 217 | 200 | 133 | 116 | 98 |
PIK (Payment-in-Kind) is an interest structure where the borrower can "toggle" between paying cash interest and accruing it to the principal. Used in mezzanine debt and second lien bonds when cash is tight.
Say you have $100M of PIK debt at 12%. In Year 1 you pay $0 cash but your balance becomes $112M. In Year 2 you owe interest on $112M = $13.4M in PIK. It compounds. A $100M PIK note at 12% becomes ~$176M after 5 years. That's $76M of additional exit debt that directly reduces your equity at exit.
In most LBO models, the revolver starts undrawn. It gets drawn in two scenarios:
In an interview model, unless you're told to model seasonality, keep the revolver undrawn in the base case and use it only in the stress case. The commitment fee (typically 0.25%–0.5% on undrawn balance) is a small item but shows attention to detail.
Here's the hard part most candidates get wrong: debt balance depends on FCF, FCF depends on interest expense, and interest expense depends on debt balance. This creates a circular reference.
The proper solution in Excel: use iterative calculations (File → Options → Formulas → Enable iterative calculation). In an interview model or simplified version: use beginning-of-period debt balance to calculate interest (eliminating the circularity at the cost of slight inaccuracy).